Quote Originally Posted by Grizzled Ian View Post
Do we know if Epictetus/Arrian wrote in regard to andras or anthropon? viros or hominem? The second usage can be translated "people/humans/humankind" without feeling that PC is involved, can't it? The first usage benefits from late C20-ese. At least, that's how I remember it, in a class in the Muniment Room with the professor of Latin, or (shames me to recall) nodding off in the front row of a 9am lecture with the professor of Greek that all my class-mates ducked.
Anthropos is definitely a collective term, even though it is a masculine word. It is often used diminutively to refer to slaves. In an abstract sense, it is used to refer to mankind. When referring to a specific individual, it usually means that person was a slave/servant or nurse maid. Homo (hominem) usually refers to all mankind. Viros technically means hero but is usually attributed to the male gender. Anir (andras) is sometime used for both sexes but mostly for just men.