X Marks the Scot - An on-line community of kilt wearers.
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8th August 10, 11:26 AM
#1
 Originally Posted by Kilted-Marine
Through this debate I have not taken a side as to when I THOUGHT a kirkin may have first happened. My stances has been that we can not prove it did not happened prior to 1940's in the USA.
I am surprised at the level of argument this has caused. because it is a true statement and a fact.
There is no proof it did not happen- IN FACT - if one mother or daughter or wife or sister on one day at one church took a piece of tartan and had it blessed while thinking about her son or husband or brother who was away from home in 1790, or 1823, or 1857, or 1901.. THEN it was done prior.....
It is impossible to prove this did not happen....
Not sure why this idea is so hard to agree with or why it is causes such bitter debate
Respectfully, Mark -- I would tend to agree that your speculation above is possible -- in fact, I've cited two documented stories that bear a resemblance to it. The issue I have is with the undocumented story of an organized liturgy coming out of the days of the Act of Proscription that is promoted today.
I can only speak for myself, but I am not bitter towards you -- as Barry Goldwater said, we can agree to disagree without being disagreeable.
T.
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