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12th March 08, 04:01 PM
#13
 Originally Posted by MacMillan of Rathdown
Actually, as I recall, feudal baronies were specifically exempted from the Fedualism Act. If so, then would there not be reason to believe the previous Lyon erred in his decision to no longer recognize baronies? Lyons have been overturned, and reversed, in the past.
Not exactly. Tenure of land by feudal barony was abolished. Holding the title to a feudal barony was not, since they are a marketable commodity that can be sold and bought, and therefore the government would have to reimburse their owners for their value. In other words, owning a feudal barony no longer necessitates owning the caput, a minimal piece of real estate. They are simply free-floating "titles" that are no longer the title TO anything.
The previous Lord Lyon recognized feudal baronies, of course. They exist in Scots law. Or rather the holding of feudal baronies do. They were not abolished. They were however separated from the ownership of land.
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